Tuesday, September 05, 2006

Phil's Question for 9/7-9/8

In this week's entry in the Online Reader, J. Axtell discusses the reluctance of white captives to return to their own society once they have been introduced to the Indian culture. Do you think these instances are just examples of advanced cases of Stockholm Syndrome or are the captives truly adopting the Indian culture over the Europeans? If this is merely Stockholm Syndrome, why are there so few cases of the reverse happening, where Indians conform to European society? How was Indian captivity more appealing?

1 Comments:

Blogger Clark Oelrichs said...

I have to say that I believe that the white captives were not just experienceing Stockholm Syndrome although some may have i think more of the cases were people just truely adapting. I think that the women and children were able to look at both lifes and see which the perfered. So i see them choosing the indian way of life because of more "freedom" and a more excepting feeling.

Wednesday, September 06, 2006 3:39:00 PM  

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